Monday, August 22, 2005

For Whom Did Christ Die?

Here's something to discuss.....

The Father imposed His wrath due unto, and the Son underwent punishment for, either:

Premise 1- All the sins of all men.
Premise 2- All the sins of some men (the elect), or
Premise 3- Some of the sins of all men.In which case it may be said-

-a. That if the third premise is true, all men have some sinsto answer for, and so none are saved.

-b. That if the second premise is true, the Christ, in their stead suffered for all the sins of all the elect in the whole world, and this is the truth.

c. But if the first premise is true, why are not all men free from the punishment due unto their sins? You answer. Because of 'unbelief'. I ask, is this unbelief a sin, or is it not? If it is, then Christ either suffered the punishment due unto it, or He did not. If He did die for the sin of 'unbelief', why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which He died? If He did not die for their sin of 'unbelief', then He did not die for all their sins!

-John Owen-


At Wednesday, December 21, 2005 6:23:00 PM, Blogger missmellifluous said...

Hi Doug,
If you notice this comment, could you please tell me if this quote is from The Death of Death? Just wondering as I would like to look up the passage quoted and read more.

At Wednesday, December 21, 2005 9:23:00 PM, Blogger Doug E. said...

To be honest It's been a while, , but I am almost certain it came from The Death of Death. If it comes to me more clearly, I'll let you know.



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